GMCH Nursing Officer Exam2025, MCQs based on latest pattern

Take the GMCH Nursing Officer Exam 2025 Test with These Crucial Multiple-Choice Questions!

You know very well that the exam date was revealed on June 29, 2025. Get ready for the GMCH Nursing Officer Exam! You will find important multiple-choice questions (MCQs) in this post that are modeled after the most recent exam format. Knowing how to answer these questions can help you improve your score as the test date draws near. Take the test to see how well you understand fundamental nursing concepts, Medical-Surgical Nursing, and all other subjects. Don't let luck determine your success; start practicing now and approach your test with assurance! Here you find 200 MCQs; the remaining questions will be provided soon, and most of the questions for this exam will come from my prepared MCQs.

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1. A patient is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. The nurse would expect to hear which breath sound upon auscultation?
(A) Crackles
(B) Rhonchi
(C) Wheezes
(D) Pleural friction rub

2. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of nosocomial infections?
(A) Wearing gloves at all times
(B) Administering prophylactic antibiotics
(C) Frequent and thorough hand hygiene
(D) Isolating all patients

3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?
(A) Apply warm compresses to the affected leg
(B) Ambulate the client frequently
(C) Elevate the affected leg
(D) Administer anticoagulant medication as ordered

4. When performing a head-to-toe assessment, the nurse begins with:
(A) The most painful area
(B) The area of chief complaint
(C) The least invasive assessment first
(D) A systematic approach from head to toe

5. Which of the following is a key principle of surgical asepsis?
(A) Maintaining a clean environment
(B) Reducing the number of microorganisms
(C) Eliminating all microorganisms
(D) Disinfecting all surfaces

6. The nurse is teaching a patient about managing their newly diagnosed Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
(A) "I need to check my blood sugar regularly."
(B) "I should eat a consistent amount of carbohydrates each day."
(C) "I can stop taking my medication once my blood sugar is normal."
(D) "Regular exercise will help improve my insulin sensitivity."

7. A patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) is experiencing fluid overload. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect?
(A) Hypotension and bradycardia
(B) Dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor
(C) Peripheral edema and crackles in the lungs
(D) Weight loss and increased urine output

8. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take when a patient reports "feeling dizzy" after standing up quickly?
(A) Instruct the patient to lie down immediately.
(B) Document the event and continue with the assessment.
(C) Assess for orthostatic hypotension.
(D) Administer an antiemetic.

9. What is the primary purpose of an incentive spirometer?
(A) To measure lung capacity
(B) To promote deep breathing and prevent atelectasis
(C) To deliver medication to the lungs
(D) To assess oxygen saturation levels

10. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops sudden shortness of breath, hives, and a feeling of impending doom. What is the nurse's immediate action?
(A) Slow the transfusion rate and monitor the patient.
(B) Stop the transfusion immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline.
(C) Administer diphenhydramine as ordered.
(D) Elevate the head of the bed and apply oxygen.

11. Which nursing theory emphasizes the importance of the nurse's environment in facilitating patient healing?
(A) Martha Rogers
(B) Florence Nightingale
(C) Dorothea Orem
(D) Sister Callista Roy

12. The nurse is preparing to administer medication via a nasogastric tube. What is the most important action before administering the medication?
(A) Crush all medications into a fine powder.
(B) Check the placement of the nasogastric tube.
(C) Mix all medications together.
(D) Administer the medication rapidly.

13. A patient with a head injury exhibits signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following is an early sign the nurse should recognize?
(A) Bradycardia
(B) Widening pulse pressure
(C) Change in level of consciousness
(D) Fixed and dilated pupils

14. What is the normal range for adult heart rate?
(A) 40-60 beats per minute
(B) 60-100 beats per minute
(C) 100-120 beats per minute
(D) 120-140 beats per minute

15. A patient is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food item should the nurse advise the patient to limit?
(A) Fresh fruits
(B) Canned soups
(C) Plain pasta
(D) Unsalted nuts

16. Which of the following best describes the term "apnea"?
(A) Rapid breathing
(B) Difficulty breathing
(C) Absence of breathing
(D) Shallow breathing

17. The nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative day 1. The patient complains of severe incisional pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
(A) Encourage the patient to ambulate.
(B) Offer diversional activities.
(C) Assess the pain using a pain scale.
(D) Notify the physician immediately.

18. What is the correct term for "difficulty swallowing"?
(A) Dyspnea
(B) Dysuria
(C) Dysphagia
(D) Dysphasia

19. A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which lab value is most indicative of cardiac muscle damage?
(A) White blood cell count
(B) Serum potassium
(C) Troponin levels
(D) Blood urea nitrogen

20. Which of the following is a common risk factor for developing pressure ulcers?
(A) Frequent repositioning
(B) Adequate nutrition
(C) Immobility
(D) Good skin hygiene

21. The nurse is educating a pregnant client about proper nutrition. Which nutrient is crucial for preventing neural tube defects?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Iron
(C) Folic Acid
(D) Calcium

22. What is the purpose of documenting patient care?
(A) To inform other healthcare professionals about the patient's status.
(B) To protect the nurse in legal situations.
(C) To track trends in the patient's condition.
(D) All of the above.

23. A patient with chronic kidney disease is on a fluid restriction. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the nurse to help the patient manage thirst?
(A) Provide a large glass of water every hour.
(B) Offer ice chips frequently.
(C) Give the patient a sugary drink.
(D) Encourage the patient to avoid all fluids.

24. Which of the following is considered a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
(A) Age
(B) Gender
(C) Family history
(D) Smoking

25. The nurse is assessing a newborn. Which reflex is characterized by the infant turning its head towards a stimulus when its cheek is stroked?
(A) Moro reflex
(B) Sucking reflex
(C) Rooting reflex
(D) Grasp reflex

26. A nurse is assessing a patient admitted with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find?

(A) Polyuria and polydipsia

(B) Dysuria and urinary frequency

(D) Nausea and vomiting

27. Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question in therapeutic communication?

(A) "Are you feeling better today?"

(B) "Did you take your medication?"

(D) "Do you have any pain?"

28. The nurse is caring for a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which lifestyle modification should the nurse prioritize in patient teaching?

(A) Increasing sodium intake

(B) Limiting fluid intake

(D) Avoiding all dairy products

29. What is the anatomical landmark used for assessing the apical pulse?

(A) Radial artery

(B) Brachial artery

(D) Popliteal artery

30. A patient on strict bed rest is at risk for developing which integumentary complication?

(A) Eczema

(B) Psoriasis

(D) Cellulitis

31. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that a nurse should monitor for?

(A) Diarrhea

(B) Hypertension

(D) Tachycardia

32. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult patient. Which site is generally considered the safest for most IM injections in adults?

(A) Deltoid muscle

(B) Ventrogluteal muscle

(D) Vastus lateralis muscle

33. What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate?

(A) 8-12 breaths per minute

(B) 12-20 breaths per minute

(D) 24-30 breaths per minute

34. A nurse is caring for an elderly patient with dementia. Which intervention is most effective in promoting a sense of security and reducing agitation?

(A) Frequent reorientation to time and place

(B) Providing a structured, predictable environment

(D) Encouraging independent decision-making

35. The nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which action is essential to ensure proper vein selection?

(A) Select the largest vein available

(B) Start distally and work proximally

(D) Always use the dominant arm

36. Which of the following is a symptom of hypoglycemia?

(A) Warm, dry skin

(B) Fruity breath odor

(D) Increased thirst

37. A patient is receiving continuous enteral feeding. Which intervention is crucial to prevent aspiration?

(A) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees

(B) Administer the feeding at a rapid rate

(D) Change the feeding bag every 8 hours

38. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child admitted with a fractured arm. According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, which stage is this child typically experiencing?

(A) Trust vs. Mistrust

(B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

(D) Identity vs. Role Confusion

39. What is the recommended compression depth for adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?

(A) At least 1 inch

(B) At least 2 inches

(D) At least 4 inches

40. Which of the following is a common manifestation of fluid volume deficit (dehydration)?

(A) Bounding pulse

(B) Increased urine output

(D) Hypertension

41. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

(A) Increase oxygen flow rate during dyspnea

(B) Practice pursed-lip breathing

(D) Engage in strenuous exercise daily

42. The nurse is assessing a patient's pain. Which of the following is the most objective indicator of pain?

(A) Patient's self-report of pain

(B) Nurse's observation of grimacing

(D) Patient's refusal to ambulate

43. Which of the following is the best definition of "tachycardia"?

(A) Slow heart rate

(B) Irregular heart rhythm

(D) Absence of heart rate

44. A patient is receiving warfarin. Which laboratory test is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of this medication?

(A) Activated partial thromboplastin time

(B) Prothrombin time / International Normalized Ratio

(D) Basic metabolic panel

45. The nurse is educating a new mother on proper infant feeding. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching about breastfeeding?

(A) "I should feed my baby on demand."

(B) "Breast milk provides antibodies to my baby."

(D) "I need to ensure a proper latch for effective feeding."

46. What is the primary purpose of a Foley catheter?

(A) To administer medication directly into the bladder

(B) To obtain a sterile urine specimen

(D) To irrigate the bladder

47. A nurse is administering medications to a patient with a known allergy to penicillin. Which action is most important before administering any new medication?

(A) Check the patient's vital signs

(B) Verify the patient's allergy status

(D) Ensure the medication is within its expiration date

48. Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

(A) Apathy

(B) Social withdrawal

(D) Flat affect

49. What does the "D" in the ABCDs of basic life support stand for?

(A) Disability

(B) Defibrillation

(D) Diagnosis

50. The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after abdominal surgery. Which instruction is crucial for preventing incisional dehiscence?

(A) Encourage aggressive coughing and deep breathing exercises

(B) Instruct the patient to lift heavy objects frequently

(D) Recommend a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation

51. What is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take when a patient with a known history of falls attempts to get out of bed unassisted?

(A) Remind the patient to call for assistance

(B) Immediately assist the patient back to bed

(D) Document the patient's non-compliance

52. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication. Which of the following is the most important step in ensuring patient safety?

(A) Administering the medication with a full glass of water

(B) Checking the patient's wristband against the medication administration record (MAR) for the "five rights."

(D) Documenting the medication administration immediately after giving it

53. A patient with dysphagia is at increased risk for which complication?

(A) Dehydration

(B) Aspiration pneumonia

(D) All of the above

54. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?

(A) Social interaction

(B) Patient dependency

(D) Nurse's personal disclosure

55. The nurse is assessing a patient's peripheral pulses. Which of the following describes a normal, palpable pulse?

(A) Absent

(B) Thready

(D) 2+ (Normal)

56. When assessing for proper nasogastric tube placement, the nurse should prioritize which method?

(A) Auscultating for air injected into the stomach

(B) Checking the pH of aspirated gastric contents

(D) Asking the patient to speak

57. A nurse is caring for a child admitted with viral gastroenteritis. Which of the following is the most significant concern for this patient?

(A) Pain

(B) Dehydration

(D) Nausea

58. Which electrolyte imbalance is often associated with the use of loop diuretics (e.g., Furosemide)?

(A) Hyperkalemia

(B) Hyponatremia

(D) Hypercalcemia

59. The nurse is teaching a patient about colostomy care. Which statement indicates the patient understands the teaching?

(A) "I should change the ostomy bag daily."

(B) "I will empty the pouch when it is about one-third to one-half full."

(D) "I can eat anything I want after surgery."

60. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute anxiety attack?

(A) Leave the patient alone to calm down

(B) Engage the patient in a complex conversation

(D) Encourage the patient to re-experience the anxiety

61. Which of the following is the best description of "eupnea"?

(A) Difficult breathing

(B) Rapid breathing

(D) Absence of breathing

62. The nurse is caring for a patient with a new colostomy. What color should the stoma be?

(A) Pale, dusky, or bluish

(B) Reddish-pink and moist

(D) Black or necrotic

63. What is the purpose of applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient's lower extremities?

(A) To reduce swelling

(B) To prevent deep vein thrombosis

(D) To treat existing clots

64. A nurse is assessing a patient who is unconscious. Which assessment finding is most indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

(A) Hypotension and tachycardia

(B) Pupillary constriction

(D) Warm, dry skin

65. Which of the following is a primary goal of palliative care?

(A) To cure a serious illness

(B) To extend life at all costs

(D) To focus solely on spiritual well-being

66. The nurse is caring for a patient with a fractured femur. Which complication should the nurse monitor closely in the initial 24-48 hours?

(A) Constipation

(B) Urinary tract infection

(D) Skin breakdown

67. What is the recommended needle angle for a subcutaneous injection?

(A) 15 degrees

(B) 30 degrees

(D) 60 degrees

68. A patient is exhibiting signs of an allergic reaction to a medication. What is the first action the nurse should take?

(A) Administer antihistamines

(B) Stop the medication

(D) Assess the patient's airway

69. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?

(A) Administering antibiotics to treat an infection

(B) Conducting screening for breast cancer

(D) Referring a patient to physical therapy after a stroke

70. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient prescribed a new diuretic. Which instruction is most important to include?

(A) "Take the medication before bed."

(B) "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods."

(D) "Monitor your blood pressure regularly."

71. According to the nursing process, which step involves analyzing data and identifying patient problems?

(A) Assessment

(B) Planning

(D) Diagnosis

72. A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would contaminate the sterile field?

(A) Keeping sterile objects within sight

(B) Placing a sterile towel on the edge of the sterile field

(D) Wearing sterile gloves

73. The nurse is caring for a patient with active tuberculosis (TB). What type of isolation precautions should the nurse implement?

(A) Contact precautions

(B) Droplet precautions

(D) Standard precautions

74. Which of the following is a common early sign of increased intracranial pressure in an infant?

(A) Sunken fontanelles

(B) Bradycardia

(D) Decreased head circumference

75. What is the primary purpose of obtaining a culture and sensitivity test for a suspected infection?

(A) To determine the patient's antibiotic allergies

(B) To identify the specific microorganism and its susceptibility to antibiotics

(D) To monitor the patient's immune response

76. What is the most reliable indicator of pain in a conscious adult patient?

(A) Behavioral changes like grimacing or guarding

(B) Changes in vital signs (e.g., increased heart rate)

(D) The nurse's objective assessment of the patient's discomfort

77. The nurse is administering a medication via the Z-track method. What is the primary purpose of this technique?

(A) To reduce pain at the injection site

(B) To prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue

(D) To administer a larger volume of medication

78. A patient is diagnosed with urinary retention. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate initially?

(A) Prepare for Foley catheter insertion

(B) Encourage the patient to try to void

(D) Palpate the bladder for distention

79. Which of the following is a key component of effective therapeutic communication?

(A) Offering advice and solutions

(B) Asking "why" questions to understand feelings

(D) Sharing personal experiences to build rapport

80. What is the purpose of performing a focused assessment on a patient?

(A) To gather comprehensive baseline data

(B) To assess a specific body system or problem area

(D) To collect data for a nursing research study

81. The nurse is caring for a patient post-stroke who has right-sided hemiplegia. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?

(A) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition

(B) Impaired Physical Mobility

(D) Chronic Pain

82. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess for which of the following?

(A) Blood pressure

(B) Apical pulse rate

(D) Urine output

83. Which action should the nurse take immediately after a patient has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?

(A) Administer an anti-seizure medication

(B) Restrain the patient to prevent injury

(D) Offer the patient a glass of water

84. The nurse is providing education to a patient about preventing falls at home. Which recommendation is most important?

(A) Keep all rooms brightly lit at night

(B) Wear loose-fitting clothing

(D) Remove throw rugs and clear pathways

85. What is the primary reason for encouraging ambulation as soon as possible after surgery?

(A) To reduce pain

(B) To prevent complications like DVT and pneumonia

(D) To improve appetite

86. A patient is demonstrating signs of dehydration. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to be elevated?

(A) Serum sodium

(B) Blood urea nitrogen

(D) All of the above

87. Which of the following is a common nursing intervention for a patient experiencing nausea and vomiting?

(A) Encourage large, fatty meals

(B) Offer hot, spicy foods

(D) Keep the room warm and poorly ventilated

88. The nurse is preparing to administer insulin subcutaneously. Which site is most appropriate for rapid absorption?

(A) Thigh

(B) Buttocks

(D) Upper arm

89. What is the primary goal of care for a patient in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI)?

(A) To prevent future MIs

(B) To reduce cardiac workload and preserve myocardial tissue

(D) To educate the patient on dietary changes

90. The nurse is assessing a newborn and notes a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet. What is this common and usually benign finding called?

(A) Cyanosis

(B) Jaundice

(D) Pallor

91. Which of the following is a principle of medical asepsis?

(A) Sterilizing all equipment

(B) Eliminating all microorganisms from an area

(D) Only wearing sterile gloves for all patient contact

92. The nurse is teaching a patient about managing stress. Which technique is an example of a relaxation exercise?

(A) Increased caffeine intake

(B) Progressive muscle relaxation

(D) Ignoring stressful situations

93. A patient is experiencing dyspnea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to improve the patient's breathing?

(A) Place the patient in a supine position

(B) Administer high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula

(D) Encourage rapid, shallow breaths

94. What is the legal term for "failure to act as a reasonably prudent nurse would under similar circumstances," resulting in harm to a patient?

(A) Assault

(B) Battery

(D) Defamation

95. The nurse is preparing a sterile dressing change. After performing hand hygiene, what is the next step?

(A) Don sterile gloves

(B) Open the sterile package away from the body

(D) Apply the new dressing

96. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

(A) Vitamin C

(B) Vitamin D

(D) Vitamin A

97. A nurse is caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer. Which stage is characterized by full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle?

(A) Stage 1

(B) Stage 2

(D) Stage 4

98. The nurse is educating a patient about adherence to medication. Which strategy is most effective in promoting compliance?

(A) Threatening the patient with negative consequences if they don't take medication

(B) Providing clear, concise instructions and addressing patient concerns

(D) Giving the patient a long list of potential side effects without explanation

99. What is the purpose of a "time-out" procedure before a surgical operation?

(A) To ensure all surgical instruments are available

(B) To allow the surgical team to take a break

(D) To review the patient's medical history

100. The nurse is providing care to a patient who has received an overdose of opioids. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?

(A) Flumazenil

(B) Naloxone

(D) Epinephrine

101. A nurse is providing care to a patient who has just undergone a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following is the most important post-procedure nursing intervention?

(A) Encourage immediate ambulation

(B) Monitor the puncture site for bleeding and hematoma formation

(D) Apply heat to the insertion site to reduce pain

102. Which of the following describes the purpose of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

(A) To assess a patient's pain level

(B) To evaluate a patient's nutritional status

(D) To measure a patient's respiratory effort

103. The nurse is administering medication to a pediatric patient. What is the most crucial consideration for safe medication administration in children?

(A) Administering all medications orally

(B) Calculating dosage based solely on age

(D) Allowing the child to choose the medication administration time

104. A patient with pneumonia is experiencing dyspnea and a productive cough. Which nursing intervention would best promote airway clearance?

(A) Administering antitussives to suppress the cough

(B) Encouraging fluid restriction

(D) Keeping the patient in a flat position

105. What is the priority nursing action for a patient who is experiencing anaphylaxis?

(A) Administer IV fluids

(B) Administer epinephrine

(D) Monitor vital signs

106. The nurse is teaching a patient about self-monitoring blood glucose. What is the most important time for a patient with diabetes to check their blood sugar?

(A) Only when they feel unwell

(B) At least once a week

(D) Only after strenuous exercise

107. Which of the following is a common early sign of increased intracranial pressure in an adult?

(A) Projectile vomiting

(B) Bradycardia

(D) Change in level of consciousness

108. The nurse is caring for a patient with a newly inserted gastrostomy tube. What should the nurse assess around the insertion site?

(A) Signs of infection or skin breakdown

(B) Bowel sounds

(D) Respiratory rate

109. What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?

(A) 7.00-7.25

(B) 7.35-7.45

(D) 7.60-7.80

110. A nurse is providing education on wound care to a patient being discharged with a surgical incision. Which instruction is most important?

(A) Change the dressing daily regardless of its condition

(B) Report any signs of redness, swelling, increased pain, or drainage

(D) Submerge the wound in water during bathing

111. Which of the following is an example of a "Never Event" in healthcare, as defined by the National Quality Forum?

(A) A patient developing a common cold

(B) A patient falls and sustains an injury while hospitalized

(D) A patient experiencing slight discomfort after an injection

112. The nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative and complaining of severe pain. After assessing the pain, what is the nurse's next priority?

(A) Document the pain assessment

(B) Administer prescribed pain medication

(D) Offer comfort measures like repositioning

113. What is the primary function of the kidneys?

(A) Digestion of food

(B) Regulation of blood glucose

(D) Production of hormones for growth

114. The nurse is assessing a patient for dehydration. Which assessment finding would indicate severe dehydration?

(A) Moist mucous membranes

(B) Full and bounding pulse

(D) Increased urine output

115. Which communication technique involves summarizing what the patient has said to confirm understanding?

(A) Clarifying

(B) Reflecting

(D) Silence

116. A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) push medication. What is the most important safety precaution to take before administering?

(A) Administering the medication as quickly as possible

(B) Checking for blood return and patency of the IV line

(D) Administering the medication without diluting it

117. What is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take when a patient expresses suicidal ideations?

(A) Leave the patient alone to ensure privacy

(B) Immediately notify the charge nurse and physician, and initiate safety precautions

(D) Document the statement and monitor closely

118. The nurse is teaching a group of expectant mothers about newborn care. Which topic is crucial for promoting infant safety?

(A) Proper feeding techniques

(B) Safe sleep practices

(D) Infant bathing

119. Which type of shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction?

(A) Cardiogenic shock

(B) Hypovolemic shock

(D) Septic shock

120. A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a classic sign?

(A) Cool, pale extremity

(B) Bilateral leg swelling

(D) Absence of pedal pulses

121. What is the primary role of the nurse in disaster preparedness and response?

(A) To manage media relations during a disaster

(B) To provide direct patient care, triage, and health education

(D) To secure funding for disaster relief efforts

122. The nurse is educating a patient about measures to prevent constipation. Which recommendation is most appropriate?

(A) Increase intake of refined grains

(B) Limit fluid intake

(D) Use laxatives daily

123. What is the ethical principle that refers to the nurse's obligation to do good for the patient?

(A) Autonomy

(B) Justice

(D) Non-maleficence

124. A patient is receiving continuous oxygen therapy via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to perform?

(A) Assess for signs of carbon dioxide retention

(B) Monitor the patient's oxygen saturation

(D) All of the above

125. The nurse is preparing to administer medication through an intravenous (IV) pump. What is the purpose of setting the infusion rate and volume to be infused on the pump?

(A) To warm the medication before administration

(B) To control the precise amount and rate of fluid delivery

(D) To filter out impurities in the medication

126. A patient is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following descriptions of pain would be most concerning for a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

(A) Sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with deep breath

(B) Dull ache that is relieved by rest

(D) Burning sensation in the epigastric area after eating

127. The nurse is caring for a patient with a new tracheostomy. Which intervention is essential to maintain airway patency?

(A) Frequent suctioning as needed

(B) Keeping the tracheostomy cuff deflated

(D) Administering humidified oxygen only

128. What is the primary reason for performing range of motion (ROM) exercises on a bedridden patient?

(A) To increase muscle strength

(B) To improve cardiac output

(D) To reduce pain

129. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. What is the maximum volume that can typically be administered via this route in an adult?

(A) 0.5 mL

(B) 1 mL

(D) 5 mL

130. A patient with a history of falls is being discharged. Which environmental modification should the nurse recommend to reduce fall risk at home?

(A) Keep pathways cluttered for easy access to items

(B) Ensure adequate lighting, especially at night

(D) Wear loose, flowing clothing

131. Which of the following is an expected finding in a patient with fluid volume excess (hypervolemia)?

(A) Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

(B) Dry mucous membranes

(D) Oliguria

132. The nurse is assessing a patient's wound. Which assessment finding indicates proper wound healing by primary intention?

(A) Presence of purulent drainage

(B) Granulation tissue fills the wound bed

(D) Redness and warmth around the wound

133. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock?

(A) Administering a vasodilator

(B) Elevating the head of the bed

(D) Administering an antipyretic

134. Which of the following is a common symptom of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in an elderly patient that may be atypical compared to younger adults?

(A) High fever

(B) Flank pain

(D) Severe dysuria

135. The nurse is administering a medication that requires peak and trough levels. What is the purpose of obtaining a trough level?

(A) To measure the highest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream

(B) To determine the lowest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream before the next dose

(D) To evaluate the patient's adherence to the medication regimen

136. A nurse is counseling a patient about smoking cessation. Which of the following is a common withdrawal symptom of nicotine?

(A) Excessive energy

(B) Increased appetite and irritability

(D) Improved concentration

137. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take when a patient reports a sudden, sharp pain in their calf after surgery?

(A) Encourage the patient to ambulate to relieve the pain

(B) Massage the affected area to promote circulation

(D) Apply a warm compress to the area

138. Which of the following is a characteristic of a patient experiencing delirium?

(A) Gradual onset over months or years

(B) Generally irreversible

(D) Intact attention span

139. The nurse is preparing a patient for a lumbar puncture. Which position should the nurse place the patient in?

(A) Supine with legs extended

(B) Prone with head turned to the side

(D) Fowler's position

140. What is the primary reason for performing a neurological assessment on a patient with a head injury?

(A) To determine their intellectual capacity

(B) To assess for changes in neurological status and potential complications

(D) To evaluate their emotional state

141. The nurse is educating a patient about a low-cholesterol diet. Which food item should the nurse advise the patient to limit?

(A) Oatmeal

(B) Lean poultry without skin

(D) Fruits and vegetables

142. Which of the following is a symptom of hyperkalemia?

(A) Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias

(B) Tetany and Chvostek's sign

(D) Polyuria and polydipsia

143. A nurse is caring for a child with cystic fibrosis. Which body system is primarily affected by this genetic disorder?

(A) Cardiovascular

(B) Respiratory and digestive

(D) Neurological

144. What is the purpose of applying a warm, moist compress to an inflamed area?

(A) To cause vasoconstriction and reduce blood flow

(B) To decrease local circulation and swelling

(D) To numb the area and reduce sensation

145. The nurse is documenting an incident report after a medication error. What is the primary purpose of an incident report?

(A) To punish the nurse responsible for the error

(B) To facilitate quality improvement and prevent future errors

(D) To provide legal documentation for disciplinary action

146. Which of the following is a contraindication for administering an oral medication?

(A) Patient is NPO.

(B) The patient has a history of allergies

(D) The Patient has high blood pressure

147. The nurse is teaching a patient about the safe administration of oxygen at home. Which instruction is crucial?

(A) Place oxygen tubing under rugs to prevent tripping

(B) Keep oxygen tanks near heat sources for warmth

(D) Increase oxygen flow rate if dyspnea worsens without consulting the provider

148. What is the legal doctrine that holds nurses accountable for their own actions, even if following a physician's order, if they knew or should have known the order was unsafe?

(A) Respondeat Superior

(B) Captain of the Ship

(D) Good Samaritan Law

149. The nurse is preparing for a wound irrigation. What principle of asepsis should the nurse follow?

(A) Clean from the dirtiest to the cleanest area

(B) Use clean gloves for a sterile procedure

(D) Use tap water for irrigation

150. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient in her third trimester. Which finding would be considered a potential sign of preeclampsia?

(A) Dependent edema in the ankles

(B) Occasional heartburn

(D) Braxton Hicks contractions

151. What is the most important intervention for a nurse to implement when caring for a patient with Clostridium difficile infection?

(A) Wearing a surgical mask

(B) Performing diligent hand hygiene with alcohol-based hand rub

(D) Limiting fluid intake to prevent diarrhea

152. The nurse is administering medication through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. After checking the placement, what is the next step?

(A) Administer all medications together

(B) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before and after each medication

(D) Crush sustained-release medications

153. A patient is experiencing severe anxiety. Which physical manifestation would the nurse expect to observe?

(A) Bradycardia and hypotension

(B) Relaxed muscle tone and slow breathing

(D) Increased appetite and weight gain

154. What is the primary purpose of a sterile technique during a surgical procedure?

(A) To minimize the risk of infection

(B) To reduce the number of microorganisms on surfaces

(D) To ensure all medical equipment is functional

155. The nurse is teaching a diabetic patient about foot care. Which instruction is most important?

(A) Walk barefoot indoors to promote circulation

(B) Cut toenails in a rounded fashion to prevent ingrown nails

(D) Apply lotion between the toes to prevent dryness

156. Which of the following is a normal finding when assessing the pupillary light reflex?

(A) Pupils dilate in response to light

(B) Pupils constrict in response to light

(D) Pupils remain fixed regardless of light

157. A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-op and reports feeling nauseous. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

(A) Administer an antiemetic medication immediately

(B) Offer a full liquid diet

(D) Encourage deep breathing and coughing

158. What is the legal term for making a false statement that harms another person's reputation, if spoken?

(A) Libel

(B) Slander

(D) Assault

159. The nurse is assessing a patient for signs of a stroke. Which acronym is commonly used to remember the signs?

(A) RACE

(B) FAST

(D) ABC

160. Which of the following is a key developmental milestone for a 6-month-old infant?

(A) Walking independently

(B) Saying their first words

(D) Toilet training

161. A patient with chronic kidney disease is on a low-protein diet. What is the rationale for this dietary restriction?

(A) To prevent hypoglycemia

(B) To reduce the workload on the kidneys by limiting protein breakdown products

(D) To increase potassium levels

162. The nurse is caring for a patient with a fractured hip. Which type of traction is commonly used to immobilize the limb before surgery?

(A) Skeletal traction

(B) Skin traction

(D) Cervical traction

163. What is the primary purpose of hospice care?

(A) To cure terminal illness

(B) To provide aggressive life-sustaining treatments

(D) To prepare patients for organ donation

164. A nurse is preparing to administer an injection. After drawing up the medication, what is the next step to ensure accuracy?

(A) Recap the needle immediately

(B) Ask another nurse to verify the dosage if it's a high-alert medication

(D) Shake the syringe vigorously

165. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

(A) Irrigating the catheter daily

(B) Keeping the drainage bag above bladder level

(D) Administering prophylactic antibiotics

166. The nurse is assessing a patient for a positive Romberg sign. Which of the following describes this test?

(A) Assessing muscle strength against resistance

(B) Observing the patient's gait for ataxia

(D) Checking for involuntary eye movements

167. What is the primary function of platelets in the blood?

(A) Carrying oxygen

(B) Fighting infection

(D) Regulating fluid balance

168. A patient is experiencing severe hyperthermia (heat stroke). What is the priority nursing intervention?

(A) Administering a warm blanket

(B) Initiating rapid cooling measures

(D) Administering acetaminophen

169. The nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is available in a multi-dose vial. What is the most important safety precaution for using multi-dose vials?

(A) Using the same needle for multiple patients

(B) Discarding the vial after a single use

(D) Storing the vial at room temperature indefinitely

170. Which of the following is an example of a healthy coping mechanism for stress?

(A) Social withdrawal

(B) Substance abuse

(D) Excessive sleeping

171. The nurse is caring for a patient with severe burns. What is the primary concern in the immediate resuscitative phase (first 24-48 hours)?

(A) Infection prevention

(B) Pain management

(D) Wound healing

172. What is the ethical principle of "Veracity" in nursing?

(A) The obligation to do good

(B) The obligation to avoid harm

(D) The fair distribution of resources

173. A patient is prescribed a nebulizer treatment. What is the purpose of this therapy?

(A) To deliver humidified oxygen

(B) To administer medication directly to the airways in a fine mist

(D) To measure lung function

174. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient. Which technique involves listening to body sounds, such as lung and bowel sounds?

(A) Palpation

(B) Percussion

(D) Inspection

175. What is the primary purpose of a patient's care plan?

(A) To serve as a legal document of all medical procedures performed

(B) To guide nursing care, ensure continuity, and promote individualized patient outcomes

(D) To document communication with the patient's family

176. Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient receiving oral feedings who has a history of dysphagia?

(A) Provide thin liquids with a straw

(B) Encourage rapid eating

(D) Offer food in large bites

177. The nurse is assessing a patient's pain using a numeric rating scale (0-10). The patient rates their pain as a 7. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate for this pain level?

(A) Mild pain

(B) Moderate pain

(D) No pain

178. What is the primary reason for the frequent repositioning of an immobile patient?

(A) To improve patient comfort

(B) To prevent pressure injuries and improve circulation

(D) To reduce the need for assistance with activities of daily living

179. A patient is prescribed a medication that is known to be nephrotoxic. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

(A) Liver function tests

(B) Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen

(D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone

180. The nurse is educating a patient about the importance of vaccines. What type of immunity is acquired through vaccination?

(A) Natural passive immunity

(B) Artificial passive immunity

(D) Artificial active immunity

181. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the "denial" stage of grief according to Kübler-Ross?

(A) Intense anger and frustration

(B) A feeling of numbness and disbelief

(D) Profound sadness and withdrawal

182. The nurse is assessing a patient's wound. Which assessment finding indicates a potential wound infection?

(A) Clear, serous drainage

(B) Redness, warmth, swelling, and purulent drainage

(D) Minimal pain at the wound site

183. What is the primary purpose of a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order?

(A) To prevent any medical treatment from being administered

(B) To allow the patient to receive comfort measures but not cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or intubation

(D) To transfer decision-making authority to the family

184. The nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository. What is the most appropriate position for the patient?

(A) Supine

(B) Prone

(D) Fowler's

185. A patient with a history of falls is admitted to the hospital. Which safety intervention should the nurse prioritize?

(A) Placing the patient in a room farthest from the nursing station

(B) Keeping all side rails down

(D) Encouraging the patient to get out of bed without assistance

186. What is the most common route of transmission for Hepatitis A?

(A) Blood and body fluids

(B) Fecal-oral route

(D) Airborne droplets

187. The nurse is assessing a patient for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following is a late sign of increasing ICP?

(A) Headache

(B) Restlessness

(D) Vomiting

188. Which of the following is a common side effect of antidepressant medications that the nurse should educate the patient about?

(A) Immediate mood elevation

(B) Increased libido

(D) Weight loss

189. The nurse is providing care to a patient receiving chemotherapy. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor closely?

(A) Hypertension

(B) Hypoglycemia

(D) Increased appetite

190. What is the correct procedure for measuring a patient's blood pressure?

(A) Place the cuff loosely on the arm

(B) Take the reading immediately after the patient ambulates

(D) Inflate the cuff only to 120 mmHg

191. A patient with chronic kidney disease is on a fluid restriction. Which assessment finding indicates the patient is adhering to the restriction, and fluid balance is improving?

(A) Increased body weight

(B) Decreased peripheral edema

(D) Increased blood pressure

192. Which of the following is a crucial component of advance directives?

(A) A will to distribute assets after death

(B) Instructions for medical care preferences in the event of incapacitation

(D) A record of all past medical treatments

193. The nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. What principle of asepsis should the nurse follow?

(A) Medical asepsis

(B) Surgical asepsis

(D) Standard precautions only

194. A patient is experiencing severe pain, rated 9/10, and is requesting pain medication. What is the nurse's priority action?

(A) Ask the patient to describe the pain further

(B) Administer the prescribed PRN opioid analgesic

(D) Wait 30 minutes to see if the pain subsides

195. What is the primary purpose of a "Code Blue" in a hospital setting?

(A) To indicate a fire emergency

(B) To alert staff to a medical emergency requiring immediate resuscitation

(D) To announce a hazardous material spill

196. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient about preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which method is most effective in preventing the transmission of most STIs?

(A) Oral contraceptives

(B) Abstinence

(D) Withdrawal method

197. Which of the following describes the ethical principle of "Justice" in nursing?

(A) The obligation to do good for the patient

(B) The fair allocation of resources and care

(D) The respect for patient autonomy

198. The nurse is caring for a patient with a feeding tube. To prevent clogging of the tube, what should the nurse do after administering medications?

(A) Push air through the tube

(B) Flush the tube with warm water

(D) Administer more formula immediately

199. What is the normal blood glucose range for a non-diabetic adult?

(A) 50-70 mg/dL

(B) 70-100 mg/dL (fasting)

(D) 120-150 mg/dL

200. A nurse is assessing a patient who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which assessment finding indicates a worsening condition?

(A) Improved oxygen saturation

(B) Use of accessory muscles for breathing

(D) Pink and warm skin

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