GMCH Nursing Officer Exam: Previous Year Solved Paper (2019)
Ace Your Upcoming Exams! 🚀
Reviewing previous year's question papers is one of the smartest ways to understand the difficulty level and pattern of the GMCH Nursing Officer Exam. Below is the complete solved paper from January 2019, complete with detailed rationales.
Pro Tip: Try to answer the question in your head before clicking to reveal the correct answer!
1. Arrange the following five events in the correct order of occurrence:
I. Stimulation of the anterior pituitary
II. Stimulation of ovaries
III. Stimulation of neurosecretory cells
IV. Release of Gonadotropic hormone
V. Release of Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
I. Stimulation of the anterior pituitary
II. Stimulation of ovaries
III. Stimulation of neurosecretory cells
IV. Release of Gonadotropic hormone
V. Release of Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) III, V, I, IV, II
💡 Explanation: This describes the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus release Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release Gonadotropic hormones (LH and FSH), which then stimulate the ovaries.
2. Arrange the following events in the order of their occurrence in the Panic circle:
I. Apprehension or worry
II. Body sensations
III. Perceived threat
IV. Interpretation of sensations as catastrophic
V. Trigger stimulus
I. Apprehension or worry
II. Body sensations
III. Perceived threat
IV. Interpretation of sensations as catastrophic
V. Trigger stimulus
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) V, III, I, II, IV
💡 Explanation: The panic circle typically starts with a trigger, leading to a perceived threat. This causes apprehension, which in turn leads to body sensations that are then interpreted catastrophically.
3. While receiving a blood transfusion, the patient develops chills and a headache. What should be the nurse's initial action?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Stop the transfusion immediately
💡 Explanation: Chills and headache during a blood transfusion can indicate a transfusion reaction, which requires immediate cessation of the transfusion to prevent further complications.
4. Choose the most therapeutic response to Mr. Shyam's question: "Am I going to die?"
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) "Would you like to talk about your condition and prognosis?"
💡 Explanation: This response acknowledges the patient's fear, offers an opportunity for open communication, and focuses on their specific situation and future outlook.
5. Which of the following would be a common indication of infiltration of a peripheral intravenous infusion?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Redness and swelling around the insertion site
💡 Explanation: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing redness, swelling, and coolness at the insertion site.
6. Ms. Babita is in the emergency room after being involved in a traffic accident. What would be an early sign of hemorrhagic shock?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Increased pulse
💡 Explanation: In hemorrhagic shock, the body attempts to compensate for blood loss by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output.
7. Ms. Anita asks the nurse when she can start eating after surgery. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) "You'll likely start on clear fluids once bowel sounds can be heard."
💡 Explanation: Return of bowel sounds indicates the digestive system is beginning to recover, and clear fluids are typically the first step in post-surgical dietary advancement.
8. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Brachial
💡 Explanation: The brachial pulse is the most accessible and reliable pulse to check in infants during cardiac arrest.
9. The evidence to assert whether or not an experimental treatment/condition has made a difference refers to:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Internal Validity
💡 Explanation: Internal validity refers to the degree to which a study accurately determines that the independent variable caused the observed changes in the dependent variable.
10. Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are capable of performing self-care?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Dorothea Orem
💡 Explanation: Dorothea Orem is known for her Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory, which posits that individuals have the ability to care for themselves.
11. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Eupnea
💡 Explanation: Eupnea refers to normal, unlabored, and quiet breathing.
12. Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are concepts related to:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) General Adaptation Syndrome
💡 Explanation: The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), proposed by Hans Selye, describes the body's physiological response to stress, consisting of alarm, resistance, and exhaustion stages.
13. A client is in the late active phase of labour. Suddenly, she tells the nurse she feels weak and dizzy. The nurse notes a drop in maternal B.P. and late decelerations of fetal heart rate. The initial action the nurse should take is to:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Turn the client on their side and administer oxygen
💡 Explanation: Late decelerations and maternal hypotension indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Turning the client to her side (usually left lateral) and giving oxygen improves uterine blood flow and fetal oxygenation.
14. During which war did the United States ask for Florence Nightingale's assistance in setting up military hospitals?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Civil War
💡 Explanation: While Nightingale is famously known for her work in the Crimean War, the U.S. government specifically sought her advice and assistance on managing military hospitals during the American Civil War.
15. Birth rate is defined as:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Live birth/1000 mid-year population
💡 Explanation: The Crude Birth Rate is typically defined as the total number of live births per 1,000 mid-year population in a given year.
16. As per the latest census, the sex ratio (the number of females per 1000 males) of Chandigarh is reported to be:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) 818
💡 Explanation: This is a factual recall question regarding the 2011 census demographic data for Chandigarh.
17. This step of the nursing process includes the systematic collection of all subjective and objective data about the client, in which the nurse focuses holistically on the client—physical, psychological, emotional, sociocultural, and spiritual aspects.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Assessment
💡 Explanation: Assessment is the vital first step of the nursing process, involving comprehensive data collection about the patient's health status.
18. There are a number of risk factors associated with coronary artery disease. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Obesity
💡 Explanation: Modifiable risk factors are those that a patient can change or control through lifestyle (like obesity, diet, smoking). Heredity, gender, and age cannot be altered.
19. When administering single-rescuer adult CPR, what is the breaths-to-compressions ratio?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) 2 breaths every 30 compressions
💡 Explanation: According to AHA guidelines, the recommended ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR is 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths.
20. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is a new initiative aiming at early identification and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years to cover 4 'D's viz.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, Development delays including disability.
💡 Explanation: The 4 'D's of RBSK explicitly focus on screening children for Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, and Developmental delays/disabilities to ensure early intervention.
21. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Probable sign of pregnancy
💡 Explanation: Probable signs are objective findings by an examiner. A positive urine hCG test is probable because other rare physiological states can cause false positives. Positive (diagnostic) signs involve seeing or hearing the fetus directly (e.g., ultrasound, fetal heart tones).
22. You are working in a paediatric unit caring for a 6-year-old boy hospitalized with cystic fibrosis. Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) To establish industry and self-confidence
💡 Explanation: According to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, school-aged children (6-12 years) are navigating the "Industry vs. Inferiority" stage, focusing on developing competence and self-confidence.
23. During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) 4th week
💡 Explanation: The fetal heart begins to beat and actively pump blood throughout the embryo's developing circulatory system around the 22nd day (4th week) of gestation.
24. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Pancreatic cancer
💡 Explanation: Pancreatic cancer is notoriously difficult to detect early and is highly aggressive, giving it one of the lowest survival rates among common cancers.
25. The stages of infection in correct sequential order are:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Incubation, prodromal, illness, and convalescence
💡 Explanation: The standard progression is: 1) Incubation (exposure to first symptom), 2) Prodromal (early, mild symptoms), 3) Illness (peak severe symptoms), and 4) Convalescence (recovery).
26. Match List - I with List - II and give your answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Neuron Systems) | List II (Areas of the Brain) |
|---|---|
| p. The acetylcholinergic system | 1. Raphe nuclei |
| q. The noradrenergic system | 2. Lateral hypothalamus |
| r. The serotonergic system | 3. Pons and basal forebrain |
| s. The hypocretinergic system | 4. Locus coeruleus |
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) p-3, q-4, r-1, s-2
💡 Explanation: Acetylcholinergic (Pons/basal forebrain), Noradrenergic (Locus coeruleus), Serotonergic (Raphe nuclei), and Hypocretinergic/Orexin (Lateral hypothalamus).
27. Which of the following is the best method to relieve constipation during pregnancy?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Increasing the intake of vegetables and fruits
💡 Explanation: Dietary adjustments, primarily increasing fluid intake and consuming high-fiber foods like vegetables and fruits, are the safest and most effective first-line treatments for pregnancy-induced constipation.
28. Of the following, which disease causes the most deaths worldwide?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Cardiovascular disease
💡 Explanation: Cardiovascular diseases (including ischemic heart disease and stroke) consistently rank as the leading cause of mortality globally according to the WHO.
29. Which of the following is a vector of infection?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) An infectious fly
💡 Explanation: A vector is a living organism (like a mosquito, tick, or fly) that transmits pathogens from one host to another. Inanimate objects (thermometers, balls) are called fomites.
30. An infant born with non-communicating hydrocephalus has just had a ventriculo-peritoneal shunt inserted. In addition to neuromuscular assessments, what measure should the nurse include in the child's care plan?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Measure head and abdominal circumference
💡 Explanation: Head circumference must be monitored to ensure the shunt is draining CSF effectively. Abdominal circumference is also checked because the VP shunt drains fluid into the peritoneal cavity, and accumulation could indicate an issue.
31. Select the anatomic malformations associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis
💡 Explanation: These four specific classic congenital heart defects make up Tetralogy of Fallot (remember the acronym PROVe: Pulmonary stenosis, Right ventricular hypertrophy, Overriding aorta, VSD).
32. Which of the following conditions is related to the development of renal calculi?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Gout
💡 Explanation: Gout results from high levels of uric acid in the blood, which not only causes joint pain but can also precipitate in the kidneys to form uric acid stones (renal calculi).
33. Select the cranial nerve paired correctly with its name.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
💡 Explanation: The other pairs are incorrect: CN V is Trigeminal (not auditory), CN II is Optic (not olfactory), and CN X is Vagus (not trigeminal).
34. What is the expected delivery date for a woman whose last menstrual period began on 20th April, 2018?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) January 27th, 2019
💡 Explanation: Using Naegele's Rule: Add 7 days to the first day of the LMP (April 20 + 7 = April 27). Subtract 3 months (April - 3 months = January). Add 1 year = Jan 27, 2019.
35. A 4-year-old female child suffered severe burns in a house fire. How will you examine the extent of her burns?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) By using the Lund and Browder chart
💡 Explanation: The Lund-Browder chart accounts for the varying body proportions of children at different ages, making it significantly more accurate for pediatric burn assessment than the adult "Rule of Nines".
36. A female client recently diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, "How could I have gotten this disease?" What is the nurse's best response?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) "You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food."
💡 Explanation: Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, most commonly through consuming contaminated food or water. Hep B and C are bloodborne/sexually transmitted.
37. Select the criterion that is correctly coupled with its indication of gestational age or birth weight.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate's weight lies between the 10th and 90th percentile
💡 Explanation: SGA is below the 10th percentile. LGA is above the 90th percentile. LBW is <2500g (VLBW is <1500g). AGA is correctly defined as falling between the 10th and 90th percentile.
38. Which of the following is paired correctly with its description about a skeletal fracture?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) An avulsion fracture: A fracture that extracts a part of the bone from the ligament or tendon
💡 Explanation: In an avulsion fracture, a strong tendon or ligament pulls off a piece of the bone. (A greenstick *is* a fracture; complete fractures that pierce the skin are "compound" or "open"; pathological fractures result from disease, not just trauma).
39. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicates salicylate toxicity?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Ringing in the ears
💡 Explanation: Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is a classic, early indicator of salicylate (aspirin) toxicity.
40. The urinary bladder is lined with:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Transitional epithelium
💡 Explanation: Transitional epithelium (urothelium) is uniquely adapted to stretch and expand as the bladder fills with urine, preventing tissue tearing.
41. An emergency room nurse is assessing a 22-year-old male who has been using opioids. What symptoms indicate that the client has overdosed?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Constricted pupils and hypotension
💡 Explanation: The classic triad of opioid overdose is respiratory depression, pinpoint (constricted) pupils, and decreased level of consciousness. Hypotension is also extremely common.
42. Which of the following pairs is NOT a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Hallucinations and Bizarre behaviour
💡 Explanation: Hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behavior are "positive" symptoms (additions to normal behavior). Negative symptoms represent a deficit or absence of normal function (apathy, anhedonia, flat affect).
43. The nurse is providing a teaching session to a client who has ulcerative colitis. The nurse will instruct the client on which diet?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Low-residue, low-fiber diet
💡 Explanation: During an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, a low-residue, low-fiber diet is critical to reduce intestinal motility, inflammation, and further irritation to the bowel lining.
44. Which of the following categories would a 70-year-old adult be placed in according to Erikson?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Integrity vs. Despair
💡 Explanation: According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial stages, late adulthood (65+ years) focuses on "Integrity vs. Despair" as individuals reflect back on the life they have lived.
45. Furosemide acts on which part of the nephron?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
💡 Explanation: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. It exerts its primary action by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
46. A person with Schizophrenia was found to repeat whatever words the psychiatric nurse was speaking. This behaviour can be labelled as:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Echolalia
💡 Explanation: Echolalia is the involuntary repeating or echoing of words or phrases just spoken by someone else. (Echopraxia is mimicking movements).
47. After falling from a ladder, a patient reports back pain and difficulty moving the lower extremities. Which additional observation is an indication that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Bradycardia
💡 Explanation: Unlike hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock which cause tachycardia, neurogenic shock causes a loss of sympathetic nervous system tone, resulting in severe vasodilation, hypotension, and bradycardia.
48. The nurse should instruct a patient who is to receive digoxin (Lanoxin) to report the development of which of the following side effects?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) / (D) *Note: Tinnitus or visual halos are toxic signs*
💡 Explanation: *Correction to the source text*: While visual disturbances (yellow-green halos) are the hallmark of digoxin toxicity, tinnitus and severe gastrointestinal distress (N/V) should also prompt immediate reporting.
49. Match List - I with List - II and indicate your answer:
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| P. Number of new cases over a given period | 1. Epidemiology |
| Q. Study of the distribution of diseases | 2. Syndrome |
| R. Number of total cases in a population | 3. Incidence |
| S. A cluster of symptoms occurring together | 4. Prevalence |
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
💡 Explanation: Incidence (P) = New Cases (3). Epidemiology (Q) = Study of disease distribution (1). Prevalence (R) = Total existing cases (4). Syndrome (S) = Cluster of symptoms (2).
50. Which of the following does NOT describe an obsession?
1. Continually reliving a traumatic event.
2. An unwanted thought that a person finds intrusive and distressing.
3. A behaviour that a person feels compelled to perform.
4. Something a person enjoys doing and talking about constantly.
1. Continually reliving a traumatic event.
2. An unwanted thought that a person finds intrusive and distressing.
3. A behaviour that a person feels compelled to perform.
4. Something a person enjoys doing and talking about constantly.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) 1, 3, and 4
💡 Explanation: An obsession is specifically an unwanted, intrusive, and distressing thought (Item 2). Reliving trauma (1) is PTSD. A compelled behavior (3) is a compulsion. Enjoying something constantly (4) is a passion or hyperfixation, not an obsession in the clinical sense.
51. Given below are the three types of psychological investigations: (1) Field experiments, (2) Laboratory experiments, and (3) Ex post facto field studies. If the above investigations are arranged in descending order in terms of the researcher's ability to control secondary variance, the typical order would be:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) 2, 1, 3
💡 Explanation: In research, Laboratory experiments (2) afford the highest level of control over secondary/extraneous variables. Field experiments (1) have moderate control, and Ex post facto (after the fact) studies (3) offer the least control.
52. World Health Day is observed on:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) 7th April
💡 Explanation: World Health Day is celebrated annually on April 7th to commemorate the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
53. A patient presents to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg, headache, and confusion. Which additional finding is consistent with a diagnosis of hypertensive emergency?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Retinopathy
💡 Explanation: A hypertensive emergency is characterized by severely elevated BP accompanied by acute target organ damage. Retinopathy (papilledema, hemorrhages in the eye) is a classic sign of end-organ damage.
54. Which of these assessment findings should the nurse expect to identify as an early clinical characteristic of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Vision loss
💡 Explanation: Optic neuritis, which causes blurred vision, eye pain, or partial vision loss, is frequently one of the earliest presenting symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis.
55. A patient who has a history of chronic bronchitis is admitted to the medical unit. The nurse notes the red blood cell count is elevated. Which of these is the likely contributing factor to this lab result in this patient?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Chronic hypoxia
💡 Explanation: Chronic hypoxia stimulates the kidneys to release erythropoietin, which prompts the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells (secondary polycythemia) to compensate for low oxygen levels.
56. A patient has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. Which of the following symptoms would a nurse expect to see given this diagnosis?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Bruising, fatigue, and bone pain
💡 Explanation: Leukemia replaces normal bone marrow with malignant white blood cells. This leads to thrombocytopenia (causing bruising/bleeding), anemia (causing fatigue), and bone marrow expansion (causing bone pain).
57. A pediatric patient has been diagnosed with right lower lobe pneumonia. Upon auscultation of this lung field, the nurse would expect to hear which breath sound?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Crackles
💡 Explanation: Crackles (rales) are indicative of fluid-filled alveoli, which is the classic hallmark auscultatory finding in patients with pneumonia.
58. The nurse anticipates the following laboratory study to assess the therapeutic effect in the client taking heparin intravenously:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Activated partial thromboplastin time
💡 Explanation: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific lab test used to monitor the effectiveness of intravenous Heparin. (PT/INR is used for Warfarin).
59. A nurse performs pre-operative teaching for a client who is to have cataract surgery. Which is the most important instruction for the client she should render?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Avoid bending from the waist
💡 Explanation: Bending from the waist drastically increases intraocular pressure (IOP), which can cause complications or bleeding at the surgical site after eye surgery.
60. Which of the following is not a potential source of acquired immunity?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Prescribed multivitamins
💡 Explanation: Acquired immunity involves the production or transfer of specific antibodies. Multivitamins support general health but do not contain antigens or antibodies to stimulate specific immune responses.
61. When teaching the caregivers of a patient who has dementia of the Alzheimer type, a nurse should stress the importance of:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Predictable environment
💡 Explanation: A structured, predictable environment with a fixed routine helps minimize confusion, anxiety, and agitation in patients suffering from Alzheimer's disease.
62. Which of the following describes the cognitive triad of depression?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Hopelessness, worthlessness, helplessness
💡 Explanation: Beck's cognitive triad of depression consists of a negative view of oneself (worthlessness), a negative view of the world/current situations (helplessness), and a negative view of the future (hopelessness).
63. A 65-year-old patient with pneumonia is receiving garamycin (Gentamicin). It would be most important for a nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory values in this patient?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Blood Urea Nitrogen and creatinine
💡 Explanation: Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that is highly nephrotoxic (toxic to kidneys) and ototoxic. Renal function markers like BUN and Creatinine must be closely monitored.
64. A man is admitted to the Telemetry Unit for evaluation of complaints of chest pain. Eight hours after admission, the patient goes into ventricular fibrillation. The physician defibrillates the patient. The nurse understands that the purpose of defibrillation is to:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Cause asystole so the normal pacemaker can recapture
💡 Explanation: Defibrillation completely depolarizes the myocardium at once, causing transient asystole. This stops the chaotic electrical activity, allowing the SA node (the heart's natural pacemaker) to regain control.
65. A perception that occurs when a sensory stimulus is present but is incorrectly perceived and misinterpreted is known as:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Illusion
💡 Explanation: An illusion is a misinterpretation of a real, external sensory stimulus (e.g., seeing a shadow and thinking it's a person). A hallucination is a false perception *without* an external stimulus.
66. What is the age limit approved in COTPA bill for the sale of tobacco products and cigarettes in approved packaging?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) 18 years
💡 Explanation: The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA) of 2003 established the legal age for purchasing tobacco products in India at 18 years.
67. A nurse is giving instructions to a client receiving lithium citrate. The nurse tells the client to do which of the following to prevent lithium toxicity:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Avoid becoming dehydrated during exercise
💡 Explanation: Lithium acts like sodium in the body. If the patient becomes dehydrated or loses sodium (through sweating), the kidneys retain lithium to compensate, leading to dangerous lithium toxicity.
68. DOTS stands for:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Direct Observation Treatment Short course
💡 Explanation: DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course) is the internationally recommended strategy for Tuberculosis (TB) control by the WHO to ensure patient adherence to treatment.
69. Which of the following is responsible for the spread of dengue?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Aedes mosquito
💡 Explanation: Dengue fever is a viral disease transmitted primarily by the bite of an infected female *Aedes aegypti* mosquito.
70. Which of the following is true about the aim of sustainable development goals : goal 1:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) End poverty in all its forms everywhere
💡 Explanation: Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 1, established by the UN, specifically aims to "End poverty in all its forms everywhere" by 2030.
71. The doctor orders Zofran (ondansetron HCl) 8 mg PO t.i.d. The pharmacy sends a 100 ml bottle, labeled 4 mg/teaspoon. How many ml should be given for each dose?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) 10 ml
💡 Explanation: Remember that 1 teaspoon = 5 ml. The concentration is 4 mg per 5 ml. The desired dose is 8 mg. Calculation: (Desired / Have) x Volume = (8 mg / 4 mg) x 5 ml = 10 ml.
72. A patient who has experienced a stroke is being monitored during the acute management phase. The clinician notes that the patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is 30mm Hg. Which of the following interventions should be taken first?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Raise the head of the bed to 30°
💡 Explanation: Normal ICP is 5-15 mmHg. An ICP of 30 mmHg is dangerously high. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is an immediate, mechanical intervention that promotes venous drainage from the brain, effectively lowering ICP.
73. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is scheduled for a left hip hemiarthroplasty at 09:00AM. The health professional is administering 08:00 am medications. Which of these medication orders should the nurse be concerned about?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Low molecular weight heparin anticoagulant subcutaneously
💡 Explanation: Administering an anticoagulant right before a major orthopedic surgery places the patient at a severe risk for intraoperative and postoperative hemorrhage.
74. The nurse is assisting a doctor with the removal of a central venous catheter. To prevent complications, the patient should be instructed to:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Perform the Valsalva maneuver as the catheter is pulled
💡 Explanation: The Valsalva maneuver (bearing down) increases intrathoracic pressure. This prevents air from entering the large central vein and causing a potentially fatal air embolism during catheter removal.
75. During an assessment of a patient's abdomen, a pulsating abdominal mass is noted by the nurse. Which of the following should be the nurse's next action?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Assess femoral pulses
💡 Explanation: A pulsating mass in the abdomen strongly suggests an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA). You must never palpate it further as it could rupture. The next action is to assess distal perfusion (femoral pulses) to check for compromised blood flow.
76. Which of the following are correct techniques while checking the blood pressure of a patient:
I. Before the measurement patient must remain in a sitting position for about 5 minutes.
II. The cuff must be at the level of the heart.
III. The arm must be freely hanging without any firm support.
IV. The stethoscope must be placed a little above than the cuff.
I. Before the measurement patient must remain in a sitting position for about 5 minutes.
II. The cuff must be at the level of the heart.
III. The arm must be freely hanging without any firm support.
IV. The stethoscope must be placed a little above than the cuff.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) I & II
💡 Explanation: The patient should rest for 5 minutes (I), and the cuff must be at heart level (II). The arm should be supported, not freely hanging (III is false), and the stethoscope goes over the brachial artery under the cuff edge, not above the cuff (IV is false).
77. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Spread his or her feet apart
💡 Explanation: Spreading the feet apart widens the nurse's base of support. This lowers the center of gravity, providing greater stability and preventing back injuries during patient transfers.
78. During an arteriogram (angiogram), the patient suddenly says, "I'm feeling really hot." Which is the best response?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) "That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected. It will last up to 20 seconds."
💡 Explanation: A sudden, transient flush or feeling of warmth is a completely normal physiological response to the intravenous injection of iodine-based contrast dye. Informing the patient reduces anxiety.
79. A nurse receives report on four clients admitted to the emergency room. Who should she assess first?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Client with cherry red skin who has been waiting 15 minutes
💡 Explanation: "Cherry red" skin is a classic, though late, sign of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning. Despite looking "pink and healthy," the patient is suffering from severe tissue hypoxia and requires immediate high-flow oxygen to survive.
80. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient on a ventilator with an endotracheal tube in place. What assessment data indicate the tube has migrated too far down the trachea?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Decreased breath sounds on the left side of the chest
💡 Explanation: The right mainstem bronchus is shorter, wider, and straighter than the left. If an ET tube is pushed in too far, it naturally slips into the right bronchus, ventilating only the right lung and causing absent/decreased breath sounds on the left.
81. When examining a patient with abdominal pain the nurse in charge should assess:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) The symptomatic quadrant last
💡 Explanation: During an abdominal assessment, the painful (symptomatic) quadrant should always be palpated last. Palpating it early causes the patient to tense up (muscle guarding), which makes assessing the remaining quadrants very difficult.
82. The nurse is caring for a patient with cervical cancer. The nurse notes that the cervical implant has become dislodged. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container
💡 Explanation: A dislodged brachytherapy (radiation) implant poses a severe radiation hazard. The priority is safety: use long-handled forceps to pick it up immediately and secure it in the designated lead-lined container kept in the room.
83. A 68 year old woman diagnosed with thrombocytopenia due to acute lymphocytic leukemia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse should assign the patient to:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) To private room so she will not be infected by other patients and health care workers
💡 Explanation: Patients with leukemia are highly immunocompromised due to a lack of mature, functional white blood cells (neutropenia). They require reverse isolation in a private room to protect *them* from acquiring deadly infections from others.
84. Which nursing action is essential when providing continuous enteral feeding?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Elevating the head of the bed.
💡 Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees during continuous feeding (and for 30-60 mins after intermittent feeding) is the most critical intervention to prevent aspiration of the formula into the lungs.
85. Which one of the following is the correct formula for calculating a person's body mass index (BMI)?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Weight in Kg divided by height in metres squared
💡 Explanation: The universally accepted mathematical formula for BMI is weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared (kg/m²).
86. Which action by the nurse in charge is essential when cleaning the area around a Jackson-Pratt wound drain?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Cleaning from the center outward in a circular motion
💡 Explanation: The area directly around the drain insertion site is considered the "cleanest." By cleaning from the center outward, the nurse prevents dragging bacteria from the surrounding skin back into the open wound site.
87. A patient is to receive 3,000 ml of 0.9% NaCl IV in 24 hours. The intravenous set delivers 15 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the flow rate so that the patient receives how many drops of fluid per minute?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) 31
💡 Explanation: Flow Rate = (Total Volume x Drop Factor) / Total Time in Minutes.
(3000 ml x 15 gtt/ml) / (24 hours x 60 mins) = 45000 / 1440 = 31.25 drops/min. Round down to 31 drops/min.
(3000 ml x 15 gtt/ml) / (24 hours x 60 mins) = 45000 / 1440 = 31.25 drops/min. Round down to 31 drops/min.
88. Nurse can minimize agitation in a disturbed client by:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Limiting unnecessary interaction
💡 Explanation: An agitated or disturbed client is often overwhelmed by environmental stimuli. Decreasing sensory input by keeping the environment quiet and limiting unnecessary interactions helps calm the patient.
89. Physical assessment is being performed by a nurse. During the abdominal examination, nurse should perform the four physical examination techniques in which sequence:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Auscultation immediately after inspection and then percussion and palpation
💡 Explanation: The standard sequence for the abdomen is Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation. Auscultation is done second because percussing or palpating first can artificially alter bowel sounds.
90. A client has just returned to a nursing unit after a cardiac catheterization performed using the femoral artery. The nurse places the client in which position?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Bed rest with head elevation at 30°
💡 Explanation: After a femoral artery puncture, the leg must remain straight. The head of the bed should not be elevated more than 30 degrees to prevent hip flexion, which could dislodge the clot and cause severe bleeding at the site.
91. After assessing the client, the nurse formulates the following diagnoses. Place them in order of priority, with the most important (classified as high) listed first.
1. Constipation
2. Anticipated grieving
3. Ineffective airway clearance
4. Ineffective tissue perfusion.
1. Constipation
2. Anticipated grieving
3. Ineffective airway clearance
4. Ineffective tissue perfusion.
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) 3, 4, 1, 2
💡 Explanation: Using Maslow's Hierarchy and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation): Airway clearance (3) is highest priority. Tissue perfusion (Circulation - 4) is second. Constipation (physiological - 1) is third. Grieving (psychosocial - 2) is last.
92. You come upon an unconscious victim with a palpable pulse. He do not appear to be breathing. You are unable to deliver the first breath. What is the next step?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Repeat the head tilt/chin maneuveur and attempt the breath again
💡 Explanation: If the first rescue breath does not go in, the most common reason is an improperly opened airway (tongue blocking the throat). You should reposition the head (head tilt/chin lift) and try again before assuming a foreign body obstruction.
93. A nurse is caring for a client who expresses active suicidal ideations. Which of the following should be the nurses' action?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Indulge patient in interaction on suicide related thoughts and actions
💡 Explanation: Direct, open communication about suicidal thoughts allows the nurse to properly assess the lethality and plan. Avoiding the topic (Option A) is dangerous. Discussing it openly shows the patient you take their distress seriously.
94. Where should you place the AED pads on an adult victim?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) One under the left arm pit and one high on the right side of the chest
💡 Explanation: Standard anterolateral AED pad placement dictates one pad goes on the upper right chest (below the collarbone) and the other goes on the lower left chest (below the armpit) to allow current to pass directly through the heart.
95. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for the presence of ballotment. To make this determination, the nurse does which of the following?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Initiates a gentle upward tap on the cervix
💡 Explanation: Ballottement is a diagnostic technique where the examiner taps the cervix upwards. If a fetus is present, it will float up in the amniotic fluid and then bounce back down, "tapping" the examiner's fingers.
96. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
💡 Explanation: In severe burn resuscitation, maintaining an adequate urine output (approx 1 ml/kg/hr for children under 30kg, or 30-50 ml/hr for older children/adults) is the most reliable and measurable indicator of adequate fluid replacement and organ perfusion.
97. A nurse auscultates the heart of Anu, a 21-year-old female. Anne seeks a consultation for dizziness and easy fatigability. During assessment, the nurse identifies a mid-to-late systolic click followed with mid-to-late systolic murmur at the cardiac apex. The murmur gets louder when Anne stands up. Based on these findings, Anu is most likely considered for which of the following cardiac problems?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Mitral valve prolapse
💡 Explanation: A mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is the classic hallmark auscultatory finding of Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP). The murmur typically becomes louder when the patient stands.
98. While doing the tracheal suctioning of a patient, the suction should be applied.............
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (A) Only when withdrawing the suction catheter
💡 Explanation: Negative pressure (suction) should only be applied while withdrawing the catheter (in a twisting motion). Applying suction during insertion can damage the sensitive tracheal mucosa and rapidly deplete the patient's oxygen supply.
99. A nurse gives a double dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) to a client who only requires a single dose. What, if anything, must the nurse do?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (C) Report the error as soon as possible
💡 Explanation: Following any medication error, the nurse's professional and ethical duty is to immediately report the error to the provider so the patient can be assessed for toxicity (liver damage, in this case) and monitored appropriately.
100. Which of the following is a primary nursing intervention necessary for all patients with a Foley Catheter in place?
👀 Click to Reveal Answer & Explanation
✅ Answer: (D) Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level
💡 Explanation: The drainage bag must always be kept below the level of the patient's bladder to prevent the retrograde (backward) flow of contaminated urine back into the bladder, which is a major cause of Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infections (CAUTIs).
📚 Keep Learning!
You will see all remaining questions soon, and we will also share a downloadable PDF file of all questions for your offline practice.
Take the Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz